In 1919, the federal government wanted to make the sale of alcohol illegal. They had to first have the people approve an amendment to our Constitution to make the prohibition law legal. Later, the Constitution was amended by the people to rescind the government’s power to prohibit of the sale of alcohol. Then recently the federal government wanted to make it illegal to sell a certain kind of insurance policy. They passed a law to do this without first having the Constitution amended as they had to do in 1919. Why not? Why is it unconstitutional for the federal government to prohibit the sale of alcohol but constitutional for it to prohibit the sale of an insurance policy to a willing buyer?
Jack C. McVickers